Skip to main content

How to calculate Irrelevance Dividend theories?


Modigliani and Miller’s Approach: Under this approach the dividend policy of a company does not change the value of the firm. If company give dividend or doesn’t give dividend to its shareholders it does not affect the value of the firm. The decision to give dividend in constant rate, regular rate and irregular rate to its shareholders does not change the value of the firm.

Assumptions of Modigliani and Miller’s Approach in Irrelevance dividend theory:
·         There is no corporate tax.
·         There is a perfect market condition.
·         The investors are rational.
·         There is no risk or uncertainty.

Formula:
P0 = D1 + P1 / (1+Ke)
P1 = P0 (1+Ke) - D1 
Number of new shares: M*P1 = I – (X – nD1)
Where,
P0 = Market price of shares
D1 = Dividend at the end of period one
P1 = Market price of share at the end of period one
Ke = Cost of equity
M = Number of new shares issued
P1 = Price of new shares to be issued
I = Amount of investment required
nD1 = Dividend paid in the period
X = Total net profit in the period

Example: Find out the prevailing market price of share if the dividend received by shareholders is Rs.2.60 per share. The capitalisation rate is 10%.The market rate is Rs. 5 per share at the end of the month.
Solution: P0 = D1 + P1 / (1+Ke)
= 2.60 + 5 / (1+0.1)
= 7.60 / 1.1
= Rs. 6.90

Example: Company XYZ has net profit of Rs. 7, 00,000. The company has issued 50,000 shares and the capitalisation rate is 9%. The company has invested Rs. 3, 20,000 in a new project. The current market price of share is Rs. 4.20 per share. The dividend given by XYZ Company is Rs.2.50 per share. With the help of MM approach find out the market price of shares at the end of the period according to dividend policy.
·         If dividend is paid to shareholders @Rs. 2.50 per share.
·         If Company doesn’t provide any dividend to its shareholders.

Solution:
If dividend paid to its shareholders @ Rs. 2.50 per share:
P0 = D1 + P1 / (1+Ke)
4.20 = 2.50 + P1 / (1+0.09)
4.20 = 2.50 + P1 / 1.09
4.20*1.09 = 2.50 + P1
4.578 = 2.50 + P1
P1 = 4.578 – 2.50
=Rs. 2.078
If Company doesn’t provide any dividend to its shareholders then,
P0 = D1 + P1 / (1+Ke)
4.20 = 0 + P1 / (1+0.09)
4.20 (1+ 0.09) = 0 + P1
4.578 = 0 + P1
P1 = Rs. 4.578

 Value of the firm:

Particulars
Dividend given by Company XYZ
Dividend is not given by Company XYZ
Net profit
7, 00, 000
7, 00, 000
Dividend paid
1, 25, 000
-----
Retained earnings
5, 75, 000
7, 00, 000
Amount Invested
8, 20, 000
8, 20, 000
Amount raised through  new shares (amount invested –retained earnings)
2, 45, 000
1, 20, 000
Market price per share (P1)
2.078
4.578
Number of new shares issued
(Amount raised through new shares / market price of per share)
1, 17, 901.8
26, 212.3
Total number of shares
1, 67, 901.8
76, 212.3
Market share value of the firm
3, 48, 899.9
3, 48,899.9



Comments

Popular posts from this blog

How to calculate Cost of Preference Share Capital?

Cost of Preference Share Capital:  An amount paid by company as dividend to preference shareholder is known as Cost of Preference Share Capital. Preference share is a small unit of a company’s capital which bears fixed rate of dividend and holder of it gets dividend when company earn profit. Dividend payable is not a tax deductible amount. So, there is no tax adjustments required for comparing with cost of debt. Formula for Cost of Preference Share: Irredeemable Preference Share Redeemable Preference Share K p  = Dp/NP K p  = D p +((RV-NP)/n )/ (RV+NP)/2 Where, K p  = Cost of Preference Share D p  = Dividend on preference share NP = Net proceeds from issue of preference share (Issue price – Flotation cost) RV = Redemption Value N = Period of preference share Example:  A company issues 20,000 irredeemable preference share at 8% whose face value is Rs.50 each at 4% discount. Find out the Cost of Preference Share Capital.

What is the difference between Cheque book and Pass book?

 Cheque book is issued by bank in customers / account holder request. With the help of this book account holder can withdraw cash from his/her account. Bank does not charge any fee to issued cheque book to its customer. But afterward bank charges some amount for using bank facility like cheque book, Debit card etc.So, Automatic some definite amount deducted from customer bank account. Pass book is  also issued by bank to its customer. It helps to record all the bank related activity according to date that is withdrawal and deposit. It is recorded by bank but the book is kept by customer to know the current balance of  his /her account.  Point of difference Pass book Cheque book What is the meaning of pass book and cheque book? Passbook is a book in which all withdrawal and deposit against customer account is recorded.   Cheque book is a book of cheques which are used to withdrawal the money to bank account.

How to calculate interest on Hire Purchase System?

Interest on hire purchase:  Interest is calculated on Cash value of goods not in instalment value which includes cash value of goods and interest amount. It is calculated on yearly, quarterly and yearly basis. Interest is not calculated on down payment which is paid at delivery of goods. Depreciation is also charged on the hire purchase goods at the end of financial year. The method applies for depreciation is based on the contract between the parties.   Example:  Company V purchased a machine of Rs.70, 000 and paid Rs.5, 000 as down payment. The interest charged @6% and 8% depreciation annually. The instalment value for each year is Rs. 10,000. Find out the interest amount for 5 years. Solution: Interest calculated on Rs. Interest Instalment Cash Value 65, 000 65, 000*0.06 = 3, 900 12, 500 8, 600 56, 400 56, 400*0.06 = 3, 384 12, 500 9, 116 47, 284 47, 284*0.06 = 2, 837 12, 500 9, 6